Arsenal have agreed a deal to sign centre-back Evan Ndicka from Eintracht Frankfurt, according to reports from Italy.
Ndicka has established himself as one of the top young French defenders in the world, having already made over 100 appearances in the Bundesliga since arriving at Frankfurt in 2018.
The 23-year-old has yet to be capped at senior levels, but has featured at every age group from U16 to U21.
He was named in the Bundesliga U21 Dream Team in 2019, alongside the likes of Dayot Upamecano, Achraf Hakimi and Jadon Sancho.
It was at this point that his manager at the time, Adi Hutter, described him as a ‘phenomenal’ player – and that reputation certainly hasn’t changed since.
A natural left-footed centre-back, Ndicka would provide perfect competition for Gabriel Magalhaes on the left side of Arsenal’s defence, with Gunners boss Mikel Arteta having a lack of cover in that area.
Now, as per reports, he may be moving to London very soon.
Arsenal ‘agree deal’ for Ndicka
According to Italian outlet Il Romanista, Jose Mourinho’s Roma have been keen on signing the centre-back this summer.
Ndicka’s contract runs out in the summer, meaning he can leave Frankfurt on a free transfer at that point. Overseas clubs can officially open pre-contract talks in January, although agreements on personal terms can be made before then.
And it is claimed that Arsenal have beaten Roma in the race to sign the 23-year-old, who have allegedly ‘already reached an agreement’ to bring Ndicka to the Emirates Stadium in the summer.
It is added that Roma were keen on signing the player due to his profile, which would see him fill a much-needed role on the left side of their defence.
Standing at 1.92 metres tall, Ndicka is a strong aerial threat, and is also adept at playing out from the back – two qualities that will certainly be appreciated by Gunners fans should he finalise the move to London.